MBEL Emerging Technologies

Emerging Technologies

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Assignment A:

Question 1: What are the benefits of using multiple HBAs on a host?

Question 2: Why do formatted disks have less capacity than unformatted disks?

Question 3: How can a block-level virtualization implementation be used as a data migration tool?

Question 4: The marketing department at a mid-size firm is expanding. New hires are being added to the department and they are given network access to the department's files. IT has given marketing a networked drive on the LAN, but it keeps reaching capacity every third week. Current capacity is 500 gigabytes (and growing), with hundreds of files. Users are complaining about LAN response times and capacity. As the IT manager, what could you recommend to improve the situation?

Question 5: An application specifies a requirement of 200 GB to host a database and other files. It also specifies that the storage environment should support 5,000 IOPS during its peak processing cycle. The disks available for configuration provide 66 GB of usable capacity, and the manufacturer specifies that they can support a maximum of 140 IOPS. The application is response time sensitive and disk utilization beyond 60 percent will not meet the response time requirements of the application. Compute and explain the theoretical basis for the minimum number of disks that should be configured to meet the requirements of the application.

Assignment B:

Question 1: A large company is considering a storage infrastructure-one that is scalable and provides high availability. More importantly, the company also needs performance for its mission-critical applications. Which storage topology would you recommend (SAN, NAS, IP SAN) and why?

Question 2: An application has 1,000 heavy users at a peak of 2 IOPS each and 2,000 typical users at a peak of 1 IOPS each, with a read/write ratio of 2:1. It is estimated that the application also experiences an overhead of 20 percent for other workloads. Calculate the IOPS requirement for RAID 1, RAID 3, and RAID 5.

Question 3: To access data in a SAN, a host uses a physical address known as a logical block address (LBA). A host using a CAS device does not use (or need) a physical address. Why?

Q4. Case Study

A hospital uses an application that stores patient X-ray data in the form of large binary objects in an Oracle database. The application is hosted on a UNIX server, and the hospital staff accesses the X-ray records through a Gigabit Ethernet backbone. Storage array provides storage to the UNIX server, which has 6 terabytes of usable capacity.

(a) Explain the core elements of the data center. What are the typical challenges the storage management team may face in meeting the service-level demands of the hospital staff?

(b) Describe how the value of this patient data might change over time.

Assignment - C

Q1. Which cache management algorithm is based on the assumption that data will not be requested by the host when it has not been accessed for a while?

A. LRU

B. HWM

C. LWM

D. MRU

Q2. What does the area ID of the FC address identify?

A. Group of ports within a switch

B. An individual port within a fabric

C. Location of the name server within the fabric

D. Unique number provided to each switch in the fabric

Q3. An organization performs copy on first access (CoFA) replication to create a local replica of application data. To perform a successful restore, what should be considered?

A. Source devices must be healthy

B. Save location size must be larger than the size of all source devices

C. Save location size must be equa l to the size of all source devices

D. All changes to the source and replica must be discarded before the restore starts

Q4. Which host component eliminates the need to deploy separate adapters for FC and Ethernet communications?

A. Converged network adapter

B. TCP Offload Engine NIC

C. FCIP bridging adapter

D. iSCSI host bus adapter

Q5. What is a function of unified management software in cloud computing?

A. Defining cloud service attributes

B. Consolidating infrastructure resources scattered across one or more data centers

C. Metering based on usage of resources by the consumer

D. Providing an interface to consumers to request cloud services

Q6. Which EMC product provides the capability to recover data up to any point-in-time?

A. RecoverPoint

B. NetWorker

C. Avamar

D. Data Domain

Q7. What is needed to perform a non-disruptive migration of virtual machines (VMs) between hypervisors?

A. Hypervisors must have access to the same storage volume

B. Physical machines running hypervisors must have the same configuration

C. Hypervisors must be running within the same physical machine

D. Both hypervisors must have the same IP address

Q8. Which iSCSI name requires an organization to own a registered domain name?

A. IQN

B. EUI

C. WWNN

D. WWPN

Q9. Which data center requirement refers to applying mechanisms that ensure data is stored and retrieved as it was received?

A. Integrity

B. Availability

C. Security

D. Performance

Q10. What describes a landing zone in a disk drive?

A. Area on which the read/write head rests

B. Area where the read/write head lands to access data

C. Area where the data is buffered before writing to platters

D. Area where sector-specific information is stored on the disk

Q11. Clients use which protocol to discover SMI Agents on Storage Area Network?

a. SLP (Service Location Protocol)

b. AGP(Agent Discovery Protocol)

c. SMIP (SMI Protocol)

Q12. __________ is the capability to continue as if nothing has happened, even after a major component failure.

A) redundancy

B) interoperability

C) fault tolerance

D) backup

Q13. Striping with parity is also known as RAID __________.

A) 0

B) 1

C) 4

D) 6

Q14. A storage device that is connected directly to a network is an example of __________.

A) network attached storage

B) storage area network

C) direct attached storage

D) RAID

Q15. Identify a network file protocol in the below mentioned set.

a. FC

b. CIFS

c. SCSI

d. NAS

Q16. More than one of the same component is an example of a __________ system.

A) scalable

B) redundant

C) RAID

D) back-up

Q17. Which one of the below is measured by MTBF?

a. Tolerance

b. Life time

c. Reliability

d. Quality

Q18. The purpose of backup is:

a. To restore a computer to an operational state following a disaster

b. To restore small numbers of files after they have been accidentally deleted

c. Is to free space in the primary storage

d. None of the above

Answer: Both A & B

Q19. Backup of the source data can be created

a. On the same device

b. On another device

c. At some other location

d. All the above

Q20. Which of the following backup technique is most space efficient?

a. Full backup

b. Incremental backup

c. Differential backup

Q21. Which of the following statements are true?

a. Data can be recovered fastest in online backup

b. Tape library is an example of nearline storage

c. Data recovery can take hours for offline backup

d. All the above

Q22. Which of the following qualifies as best DR (Disaster Recovery) site?

a. DR site in the same campus

b. DR site in the same city

c. DR site in the same country

d. DR site in a different country

Q23. In SAN storage model, the operating system view storage resources as —— devices

a. FC

b. SCSI

c. SAN

d. None of the above

Q24. To decide on a backup strategy for your organization, which of the following should you consider?

a. RPO (Recovery Point Objective)

b. RTO (Recovery Time Objective)

c. Both RPO & RTO

d. None of the above

Q25. Which of the following can be used for reducing recovery time?

a. Automatic failover

b. By taking backup on a faster device

c. Taking multiple backups – one in same location, another at different location

d. All the above

Q26. Which storage technology requires downtime to add new hard disk capacity

a. DAS

b. SAN

c. NAS

d. None of the above

Q27. Which of the following is Backup software?

a. Amanda

b. Bacula

c. IBM Tivoli Storage Manager

d. All the above

Q28. Data protection is required to recover from

a. Disk/System failures

b. Software corruption through virus

c. Human errors

d. All the above

Q29. The challenges for data protection are

a. Taking care of the old data

b. Backing up the dynamic data

c. All the above

Q30. Name the mechanism which provides the highest level of data protection

a. RAID 0

b. RAID 1

c. RAID 6

Q31. Disk controller driver in DAS architecture is replaced in SAN either with ——

a. FC Protocol

b. iSCSI

c. TCP/IP stack

d. Any one of the above

Q32. The drawback of data mirroring is

a. Backing up the data

b. Performance degradation

c. Difficulty involved in configuring the mirrored volume

Q33. With reference to Volume Manager, is the following statement TRUE or FALSE under specific configuration?

- Volume manager provides protection against multiple disk failures

a. True

b. False

Q34. Which are all the statements valid statements w.r.t volume manager

a. Achieve protection against single/multiple disk failures

b. Sustain system/node failure

c. Get better performance compared to using individual disk

d. All the above

Q35. Point out the false statement. Volume can

a. Span across different partitions/disks

b. Span across different disk arrays

c. Be created on tape device

d. Be a shared volume

Q36. Identify the correct statements w.r.t. Journal File System (JFS)

a. JFS keeps pointers to all the stale data

b. While recovering data on a system, JFS helps in quicker recovery

c. All the above

Q37. Which topology is best suited for medium sized enterprise.

a. NAS

b. SAN

c. DAS

Q38. What is the most basic level of storage

a. SAN

b. DAS

c. NAS

d. ISCSI

Q39. Which three statements describe differences between Storage Area Network (SAN) and Network Attached Storage (NAS) solutions? Choose three.

a. SAN is generally more expensive but provides higher performance

b. NAS uses TCP/IP for communication between hosts and the NAS server

c. NAS requires additional hardware on a host: a host bus adapter for connectivity

d. SAN uses proprietary protocols for communication between hosts and the SAN fabric

Q40. Demerits of DAS are. Choose two.

a. Interconnect limited to 10km

b. Excessive network traffic

c. Distance limitations

d. Inability to share data with other servers

MBEL IT Project Management

IT Project Management

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 Section - A

Question 1: Put in plain words about the main differences between software review and software inspection or walkthrough.

Question 2: Lines of code (LOC) and function point (FP) are two measures of the size of a system. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of using these two metrics for measuring systems.

Question 3: What are the major risk factors which may be encountered in the development of software?

Question 4: What are 'throwaway' prototypes and 'evolutionary' prototypes? How can production of a prototype be controlled and why is this important?

Question 5a): How does development of software differ from that of hardware from a quality viewpoint?

Question 5b): What are the main objectives of configuration management and version control?

Section - B

Question 1a): Describe how cost benefit evaluation techniques can be used to choose the best among competing project proposal.

Question 1b: Briefly outline the objectives of the Software Project Planning and the Software Project Tracking and Oversight key process areas found in level 2 of the CMM (Capability Maturity Model).

Question 2a: Describe with an example how the project schedule is evaluated using PERT.

Question 2b): Give an outline of step wise planning activities for a project with neat diagram.

Question 3: Produce a critical path network, showing the earliest start times and latest finish times for each task, using the data in the table below. Write down the sequence of tasks on the critical path.

Section - C

Q1. Which of the following principles of project management defines and controls the functions that are to be included in the system?

a. Project quality management

b. Project time management

c. Project cost management

d. Project scope management

Q2. A (n) ____ is one that can be measured or estimated in terms of dollars and that accrue to the organization.

a. net present value (NPV)

b. tangible benefit

c. breakeven point

d. intangible benefit

Q3. A determination of economic feasibility of the project always requires a thorough ____.

a. cost/benefit analysis

b. proof of concept prototype

c. system scope document

d. work breakdown structure (WBS)

Q4. A(n) ____ is a good tool for monitoring the progress of a project as it moves along.

a. entity-relationship diagram (ERD)

b. Gantt chart

c. work breakdown structure

d. context diagram

Q5.The ____ is a sequence of tasks that cannot be delayed without causing the project to be completed late.

a. float

b. critical path

c. payback period

d. milestone

Q6. An example of an intangible benefit is ____.

a. increased levels of service

b. reduced employee morale

c. lost productivity

d. lost customers

Q7. Which of the following principles of project management identifies all stakeholders?

a. Project Risk Management

b. Project Communication Management

c. Project Human Resource Management

d. Project Time Management

Q8. Projects initiated through strategic planning are sometimes described as ____ projects

a. critical

b. top-down

c. prototype

d. weighted

Q9.A ____ combines three components: the problem description, the business benefits, and the system capabilities.

a. proof-of-concept prototype

b. context diagram

c. system scope document

d. data flow diagram (DFD)

Q10. A ____ describes the purpose of the new system, the potential start and completion dates, and the key stakeholders and sponsors of the new system.

a. cost/benefit analysis

b. project schedule

c. work breakdown structure (WBS)

d. project charter

Q11. ____ are normally described in terms of the influences that can change the financial statements, either by decreasing costs or increasing revenues.

a. Work breakdown structures

b. Intangible benefits

c. Scope documents

d. Business benefits

Q12. During the planning phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC), the ____ helps to define the scope of the problem.

a. critical path method (CPM) chart

b. project evaluation and review technique (PERT) chart

c. proof of concept prototype

d. context diagram

Q13. There are two general approaches for building a ____: (1) by deliverable and (2) by a sequential timeline.

a. system scope document

b. work breakdown structure (WBS)

c. proof of concept prototype

d. context diagram

Q14.The objective of ____ is to calculate a percentage return so that the costs and benefits are exactly equal over the specified time period.

a. return on investment (ROI)

b. project evaluation and review technique (PERT)

c. cost/benefit analysis

d. net present value (NPV)

Q15. The objective of ____ is to determine a specific value based on a predetermined discount rate.

a. project evaluation and review technique (PERT)

b. return on investment (ROI)

c. cost/benefit analysis

d. net present value (NPV)

Q16. Which of the following is a responsibility of the project manager from an external perspective?

a. report project status and progress

b. assess project risks

c. assess team members to tasks

d. develop project schedule

Q17. What is the structured approach called for developing software and information systems?

a.    Software design

b.    Prototyping

c.    Systems development life cycle

d.   Systems methodology

Q18. Which software process model requires the least involvement of user?

a) Iterative enhancement Model

b) Spiral Model

c) Prototyping Model

d) Waterfall Model

Q19. Three major categories of risks are

a) Business risks, personnel risks, budget risks.

b) Project risks, technical risks, business risks.

c) Planning risks, technical risks, personnel risks.

d) None of the above

Q20. Which of the following best describes the capability of software to satisfy business requirements?

a)   Compatibility.

b)   Scalability.

c)   C) Both a and b

d)   Functionality.

Q21. ____requirements describe operational characteristics related to the environment.

a. Performance

b. Technical

c. Reliability

d. Usability

Q22. ____ requirements describe operational characteristics related to users.

a. Usability

b. Technical

c. Reliability

d. Performance

Q23. ____ requirements are most often documented in graphical and textual models.

a. Security

b. Nonfunctional

c. Technical

d. Functional

Q24. A representation of some aspect of the system being built is a ____.

a. tool

b. technique

c. model

d. GUI

Q25. An inter-task dependency in which two tasks must finish at the same time is referred to as.

a) Start-to-finish (SF)

b) Finish-to-finish (FF)

c) Start-to-start (SS)

d) None of the above

Q26. Which of the following is the estimated amount of time required to complete a task, based on a weighted average of pessimistic, optimistic, and expected duration?

a) Minimal duration

b) Earliest completion.

c) Weighted average duration.

d) Most likely duration

Q27. The WBS for the project represents:

a)   All the tangible items that must be delivered to the client.

b)   All the work that must be completed for the project.

c)   The work that must be performed by the project team.

d)   All the activities of the project.

Q28. Your company has an emergency and needs contracted work done as soon as possible. Under these circumstances, which of the following would be the helpful to add to the contract?

a)   A clear contract statement of work

b)   Requirements as to which subcontractors can be used

c)   Incentives

d)   A force majeure clause

Q29. A prototype has which of the following characteristics?

a. Includes work procedures, both extensive and throwaway

b. Is operative and executable, is focused on a specific objective, is quickly built

c. Has good look and feel, is executable, and is complete

d. Is quickly built, has mock-up, and is complete

Q30. The type of prototype used during the analysis phase is the ____ prototype.

a. discovery

b. evolving

c. interface

d. functioning

Q31. The purpose of joint application design (JAD) is to ____.

a. establish a design environment

b. design a prototype

c. expedite the design of the system

d. expedite the investigation of system requirements

Q32. A group support system (GSS) is a computer system that ____.

a. facilitates group discussion sessions

b. supports all employees in the same group

c. provides secure access to a group of users

d. permits users to form personal groups

Q33. The objective of a structured walkthrough is to ____.

a. fix problems in the system

b. inform the project leader of progress

c. find errors and problems

d. walkthrough a piece of work

Q34. You are a project manager who was just assigned to take over a project from another project manager who is leaving the company. The previous project manager tells you that the project is on schedule, but only because he has constantly pushed the team to perform. What is the FIRST thing you should do as the new project manager?

a)   Check risk status.

b)   Check cost performance.

c)   Determine a management strategy.

d)   Tell the team your objectives.

Q35. The customer requests a change to the project that would increase the project risk. Which of the following should you do before all the others?

a)   Include the expected monetary value of the risk in the new cost estimate.

b)   Talk to the customer about the impact of the change.

c)   Analyze the impacts of the change with the team.

d)   Change the risk management plan.

Q36. Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include confronting, smoothing, forcing and:

a)   Withdrawing.

b)   Directing.

c)   Organizing.

d)   Controlling.

Q37. The document that is proof of upper management’s commitment to the project and gives the authority to manage the project to the project manager is called:

a.    The project plan.

b.    The project goals and objectives.

c.    The project charter.

d.   The project definition.

Q38. Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually accomplished?

a)   Earned value (EV)

b)   Planned value (PV)

c)   Actual cost (AC',

d)   Cost variance (CV)

Q39. A ____ model shows what the system is supposed to do in great detail, without committing to any one technology.

a)   logical

b)   physical

c)   vertical

d)   horizontal

Q40. ____ requirements are based on the procedures and rules that the organization uses to run its business.

a. Physical

b. Functional

c. Logical

d. System